HomeQ&AMisma persona, diferente pronombre. ¿Por qué?

Misma persona, diferente pronombre. ¿Por qué?

1
vote

En la biblia, en la Nueva Versión Internacional, en el libro de Juan, capítulo seis y versículo veinte cinco es como así, Cuando lo encontraron al otro lado del lago, le preguntaron: Rabi, ¿cuándo llegaste acá? ¿Por qué es el primero pronombre 'lo' y el segundo pronombre es 'le' ya que ambos pronombres se refieren al misma persona?

lo encontraron - they found him le preguntaron - they asked him

Después de leyendo la sección referencia, todavía no lo entiendo.

Gracias!

Jack

1586 views
updated DIC 23, 2009
posted by Jack-OBrien

4 Answers

4
votes

In the first instance him is a direct object so the direct object pronoun (lo) is used.

In the 2nd instance, him is a indirect object and the indirect object pronoun is used (le). They asked him "Rabi,... ". What is in the quotes is the direct object. They posed the question "to him" the indirect object of the sentence.

updated DIC 23, 2009
edited by 0074b507
posted by 0074b507
2
votes

In the second instance, they didn't ask "him" they asked "a question" of him and the "of him" makes "him" an indirect object therefore 'le'. In the first instance they ran into him and "him" is direct object therefore "lo". OK?

updated DIC 23, 2009
posted by ColinD
don't you hate simultaneous postings? - 0074b507, DIC 22, 2009
1
vote

Thanks so much. As Dr. Watson might have said to Holmes, "It's perfectly clear once you've explained it".

updated DIC 23, 2009
posted by Jack-OBrien
0
votes

To further confuse things: leismo is the practice of using the indirect object pronouns le and les in place of lo and los when it refers to a male person or people. The article says it is common in parts of Spain, but it is also common in some parts of South America.

updated DIC 23, 2009
posted by lorenzo9
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