HomeQ&A"Me apetece un helado." o "Se me antoja un helado." Which form is better?

"Me apetece un helado." o "Se me antoja un helado." Which form is better?

1
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Speaking to a group of close friends or relatives. Is there a difference in the form of this phrase in manners of speech from different Latin countries? Can you give examples?

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updated OCT 22, 2009
posted by richlowery911

1 Answer

1
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Of course it depends on where you are in latin america. I'm sure that if you are in Colombia you'll hear 'se me antoja un helado' while if you are in Argentina (where I'm from) you'll here 'quiero un helado' or 'tengo ganas de tomar un helado' more than any of the two expression you propose.

In Argentina, there is a tradition. Women that are pregnant are allowed to have 'antojos'. So, if you are pregnant and your husband stick to the tradition you'd say 'se me antoja un helado' or 'tengo antojo de helado' and he'll bring it to you.

Other expression for wishes from Argentina: 'muero por un helado', 'tengo unas ganas locas de helado', 'que ganas de un helado!' or less enthusiastic: 'quiero un helado'.

updated OCT 22, 2009
posted by leoz
Great answer! - --Mariana--, OCT 22, 2009
Thanks very much for the description. That really helps. Actually, I'm in Arizona (EEUU) and most often I speak with persons from Mexico. However, I also speak to others of Latin countries, including Agentina. I originally learned spanish in Ecuador. - richlowery911, OCT 22, 2009
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