HomeQ&AIn the conjugation of callarse, why isn't it "me callo," "te callas" etc., instead of "me callas" as it is written in the paradigm? Thanks.

In the conjugation of callarse, why isn't it "me callo," "te callas" etc., instead of "me callas" as it is written in the paradigm? Thanks.

0
votes

In the conjugation of callarse, why isn't it "me callo," "te callas" etc., instead of "me callas" as it is written in the paradigm? Thanks.

5883 views
updated SEP 30, 2009
posted by RobertDommer

8 Answers

1
vote

I think Robert meant the conjugation below the definition here

That's obviously an error. It is conjugated properly if you look it up with the conjugation feature:

callarse

updated SEP 30, 2009
posted by 0074b507
0
votes

No one says Me calles! Who talks like that? wink I know this is an exercise, but at some point you are going to start talking to people. Your spanish life will move from the computer and into real life. Just giving you a little something for the back of your mind when you get there...wink

updated SEP 30, 2009
posted by ChamacoMalo
0
votes

When the pronoun is a direct object pronoun the verb is being used transitively (non-reflectively); not pronominally or reflexively so the conjugated verb isn't reflecting anything.

Quentin, you've been spending too much time thinking about reflexive verbs (in Spanish). The use or "reflects" (in English) to mean "indicates/"signifies"/et al is well established.

Better to say that it states who the doer of the action is.

Actually, it would be better to say "indicates", rather than "states", since the subject of the verb may be "indicated" (indirectly) or "implied" but not made explicit.

updated SEP 30, 2009
posted by samdie
0
votes

Direct object first, then conjugated verb reflecting who actually did the verb.

I'd quibble with your wording, but not your reasoning.

When the pronoun is a direct object pronoun the verb is being used transitively (non-reflectively); not pronominally or reflexively so the conjugated verb isn't reflecting anything. Better to say that it states who the doer of the action is. The direct object pronoun is the receiver of the verb's action.

In reflective usage, the doer and the receiver of the verb's action are the same person. in non-reflective usage the doer and the receiver are distinct persons (or objects).

updated SEP 30, 2009
posted by 0074b507
0
votes

"me callas" means, "You shut me up."

The direct object pronoun before the conjugated verb indicates who has received the action, and then the verb would be conjugated to tell who shut up that direct object.

In this case, the direct object "me" means "me". Then the conjugated verb means "you shut, you silence"

Put it all together, and it's "me, you silence" or "me, you shut up" Or "You shut me up"

Me callo would mean "I shut me up".

To say "I shut him up", you could say "Lo callo".

Direct object first, then conjugated verb reflecting who actually did the verb.

updated SEP 30, 2009
posted by Dean440
I thought the reflexive pronouns were me,te,se,nos,se, - radbushi, SEP 30, 2009
0
votes

Me callas would mean you shut me up. Remember the me te le la etc. refers to where the action is going. So te callo would be I shut you up, and callate would be shutup (you).

updated SEP 30, 2009
posted by morphine
I ddin't look at the link. To answer why that's like that, I don't know. - morphine, SEP 30, 2009
0
votes

I think Robert meant the conjugation below the definition here

updated SEP 30, 2009
posted by Issabela
0
votes

Can you give us a link to an example? Where are you reading "me callas"?

updated SEP 30, 2009
posted by Jason_Bryant
SpanishDict is the world's most popular Spanish-English dictionary, translation, and learning website.
© Curiosity Media Inc.