HI raven, I am glad you found your way to the forum,

Look at the change of title, please write your question directly into the title.

I have noticed that in some sentences the que doesn't always translate into that for example yo quiero/necesito que me hagas un café wouldnt this literally translate to I want/need that you make me a coffee. Basically why do you put que in there is it just to make the sentence subjunctive.

The answer is: because in Spanish is done like that. Try to explain to any native Spanish speaker why do you say in English "I want you to make me a coffee" instead of "I want that you make me a coffee", which is what sounds natural to us. English has a special construction (i.e. want someone to do sth), whereas Spanish maintains the usual construction with "que". You can say "Quiero un café", so you can also say "Quiero que me hagas un café"; same construction, but with a noun clause instead of a noun.

You use subjunctive because you are not saying that you are making me a coffee (but I want you to do it), so if you don't declare it, you cannot use indicative, but subjunctive.

Also it says(reference page) that no tener and buscar can indicate wishfulness how so. What could follow No tengo que or Busco que and still indicate wishfulness.

The "wishfulness" idea doesn't work, if you ask me, but there you go... I have no idea how to make a subjunctive sentence with "no tengo que", by the way.

Busco que me quieran.

You are not declaring that they love you (you are asking for it), so you can't use indicative; hence the subjunctive.

[

You use subjunctive because you are not saying that you are making me a coffee ...(but [that] I want you to do it)...case in point.

buscar=querer encontrar/descubrir...wishfulness

>