"I" vs. "Me"

Question

My wife, who is learning English, asked me a question that I was unable to explain in the technical terms that she needs to understand how this works.

In English and in Spanish we refer to the first person as "I" (yo) and actions related to that person as affecting "Me" (me / a mi). Generally speaking, I understand that whether you use "I" or "me" depends on whether the person is acting as subject of object in the sentence, or some such.

Most of the time there's a direct equivalent in the way the two languages work:

I want that apple; bring that apple to me = (Yo) quiero esa manzana: tráeme la manzana.

I signed the document. It was signed by me. Yo firmé ese documento. El documento fue firmado por mi.

So far so good, yeah? Ok, now we have the following construction:

Spanish

Woman: Yo te amo

Man: Yo también.

English

Woman: I love you

Man: me too.

Hm... after I started writing this, I'm beginning to wonder whether this is an exception that only applies to "me too" types of sentences? I am trying to think of other examples, but I see that oftentimes people incorrectly say "you and me" in English, when they should say "you and I". In any event, how do we explain the "me too", vs. "yo también"?

Can you think of any other grammatically correct examples where you always say "me" in English, but "yo" in Spanish?

Thanks.

• jejeje"me too" that would be fuel for a woman I think. - Yeser007 Jan 28, 2012

Answer 1

Ken said:

To me when the man answers the woman with "me too" he is saying "I love me too."

This is how the response, "Me too," comes off to me as well. It strikes me as something someone might say in an attempt to be clever:

—I love you.

—Hey, (I love) me too!

To reciprocate the sentiment, however, I think that the most common expression to use, or at least, the most common expression I would use would be, "I love you, too." Other shortened forms might be, "As do I (love) you" or "And I (love) you" (but to my ear, these both sound a bit literary).

Sandy said:

I guess we can consider it an English idiom. When you agree with something someone has said like: "I like ice cream", you can say, "Me, too," although, "So do I" is more grammatically correct.

This is how the expression strikes me as well, that is, as an example of an idiomatic expression.

Can you think of any other grammatically correct examples where you always say "me" in English, but "yo" in Spanish?

Well, from time to time, that subjunctive can lead to suitable translations which require a disjunctive pronoun accompanied by an infinitive rather than a subject pronoun accompanied by a conjugated verb.

Quiere que (yo) sea feliz

She wants me to be happy. (syntactically dissimilar to Spanish, but very colloquial)

—vs—

She wants that I be happy (syntactically similar construction to Spanish, but far less colloquial)

With both cases, we see examples of grammatically viable sentences; however, the former is likely the preferred form in terms of actual use.

Interestingly, it is also this first alternative which gives rise to an interesting dilemma that can occur with the idiomatic use of the expression, "Me, too" (as described above), a dilemma that can be used to illustrate just why such an expression does not always provide a satisfactory alternative to the more "grammatically correct" form.

For instance, if one were to say:

—I want to buy an engagement ring (Quiero comprar un anillo de compromiso)

It would not raise too many eyebrows if another person were to respond with:

—Me, too (Yo también)

However, when we introduce an additional clause with a subject all its own into the mix, it can make such a response a bit ambiguous:

—She wants me to buy her a ring (Quiere que le compre un anillo de compromiso)

—Me, too!

Here it is not altogether clear whether the respondent is saying

—Me, too (i.e. I want you to buy me one, too)

Yo también quiero que me compres un anillo de compromiso.

or

—Me, too (i.e. She wants me to buy her one, too)

Quiere que yo le compre un anillo de compromiso también

With this type of scenario in mind, there is probably an argument to be made for the increased suitability of an expression using the subject pronoun, an expression which might, perhaps, be a bit more resistant to such ambiguities:

—She wants me to buy her a ring

—I do, too/Yo también (i.e. I want you to buy her a ring, too.)

• Great answer, Iza. Helps a lot. - Gekkosan Jan 28, 2012
• Excellent, Iza :) - cogumela Jan 29, 2012

Answer 2

To me when the man answers the woman with "me too" he is saying "I love me too."

I think the correct answer should be "I love you too."

• Good point. So would you say that "me too" is incorrect? How about Chileno's other example: "it's only me", when in Spanish we say "soy sólo yo"? - Gekkosan Jan 28, 2012
• I'll answer that with another post. Rather, let someone else answer it. ;-) - 00d7cd75 Jan 28, 2012

Answer 3

Me too.

But I'm equally appalled by the following all-too-common misuse of "myself" :

Boss to worker: "Write your report and send it by email to John and myself."

What is it?? Is "me" too informal, and "myself" sounds more educated??

• I agree 1000%. Myself should mainly be used in reflexive sentences, or for emphasis (Wow I did it by myself!!) - mtmonadnock Jan 28, 2012

Answer 4

My grammar is too rusty; I'll get grammar girl to explain:

Grammar Girl here, or actually for this episode I should say, “'Tis I, Grammar Girl, here to help you understand when to use the words I and me.”.

So this week, Jodie wanted to know which is correct: It is I or It is me. She says that when she answers the phone and the person asks, "Is Jodie there?" she usually responds by saying, "This is she." But one of her friends says this is incorrect, and now they have a $5 bet on the question.

Wow! Ryan, David, Jane, and Iljitsch also asked this question, but they don't have money riding on the answer.

The short answer is that Jodie wins. The traditional grammar rule states when a pronoun follows a linking verb, such as is, it should be in the subject case. That means it is correct to say, “It is I,” and “It was he who dropped the phone in shock when Jodie answered, 'This is she.'”

For full article:

link text

• Ahhhh.... so according to her, there is no discrepancy. It *should* be "it is just I", and "I too", I gather. - Gekkosan Jan 28, 2012
• Exactly, Gekko-kun. - samdie Jan 29, 2012

Answer 5

I guess we can consider it an English idiom. When you agree with something someone has said like: "I like ice cream", you can say, "Me, too," although, "So do I" is more grammatically correct.

And if you want to agree in the negative such as, "I don't like coffee", then you can say, "Neither do I."

Check out some more examples at Dave's ESL Cafe

link text

Answer 6

I have always wondered about that "me too"

I always thought that it should've been "I do too"

But then again, it's only me.

Or should that be "I"?

• ¡Ajá, otro ejemplo! Gracias Chileno. "It's only me" - "soy sólo yo". :-) - Gekkosan Jan 28, 2012
• I agree Chileno and would go one step farther and tell her "I love you too"instead of just agreeing.;) - Yeser007 Jan 28, 2012

Answer 7

Yo también te amo. = I also love you. Yo también (te amo). in that case means I also even though we see "me too". That's my take.

• Well, ok, but why "me too"; not "I too"? - Gekkosan Jan 28, 2012
• Actually Gekko I too would be better. - Yeser007 Jan 28, 2012

Answer 8

I am not sure about your level of spanish or your wife's english level but I'd say you are asking here several questions related with spanish grammar and the answer is not easy.

I am not an expert, but I think you are talking here about reflexive verbs and reflexive pronouns. suggestion...live it at that for the time being, eventually you will be able to understand or at least "mimic" when to use it or not (in spanish). Actually, I don;t really understand your question/questions. I mean it, as an spanish native speaker and a fluent english speaker. No disrespect, probably my fault.

Anyway, just the fact that you are wondering about those things shows clearly that you are big into languajes and that you have "inquietudes intelectuales". Good for you.

Nite

• Pepito - why does your profile show that your English is "beginner"? You sound fluent. - pesta Jan 28, 2012
• I did it long ago, completely forgot about it! Thanks for the reminder and the compliment.:) - pepitogrillo Jan 28, 2012
• Ahh, Pepito, qué gentil. Pues sí, digamos que más o menos me defiendo un poquitín con el español, pero sin duda no subí involucrarme con eso de las "inquietudes intelectuales"- Claro, siendo mi día libre, debería estar viendo tele, en vez de romperme.... - Gekkosan Jan 28, 2012
• ...la cabeza con preguntas tan profundas y esotéricas. :-) - Gekkosan Jan 28, 2012

Answer 9

When does slang, which most people view negatively, become colloquial usage?

I'd quite happily use 'Me too' or even 'Me neither' if a negative response was needed. As in 'I love icecream' 'Me too', or 'I don't want any more to eat' 'Me neither'

Maybe they are not strictly grammatically correct but they are certainly normal every day expressions, certainly in the UK anyway.

• Well, I for one am not passing judgment. I just want to understand the reason behind these seemingly odd constructions. :-) - Gekkosan Jan 28, 2012
• Ah well, English is a funny language, sometimes there really is no reason other than it evolved like tat. - MaryMcc Jan 29, 2012

Answer 10

"Me too" is slang (We all use it.) "I love you too." would work.

Answer 11

There are so many people who also incorrectly use,

My wife and I

and

Me and my wife

• "Me and my wife ate dinner..." is all too common. - pesta Jan 28, 2012
• "Why can't the English learn to set a good example ...?" - samdie Jan 29, 2012