ASK A QUESTION Using a past tense to describe a future action????
"Hemos quedado mañana a la 13.00 en el Balcón"
This morning in class I just could not understand the above phrase. I questioned why use a past tense for a future action - but just could not understand the explanation.
The phrase was explained as being a group of people who met for a reunion, one person was missing and during the conversation someone suggested phoning that person and used the above phrase to say that the group would be meeting again tomorrow - or next week or when-ever.
I have copied the example from the board, not dictation, so I know I am not wrong.
I'm hoping a native speaker or Grammar expert is around at the moment.
Thanks for any help.
4 Answers
We have agreed to meet tomorrow. . .
The tenses are the same in English and the past tense refers to having agreed, not to the future time of the meeting.
Lorenzo is right. Look at definition 7 of quedar
7. (citarse)
quedar (con alguien) -> to arrange to meet (somebody)
hemos quedado el lunes -> we've arranged to meet on Monday
he quedado con Juan esta noche -> I've arranged to meet Juan this evening
AS explained by others it is not a past tense - it is the present perfect.
The present perfect is a tense that links the "past" to the present time.
It is constructed by using the "have" verb, "haber" in Spanish, with the past participle of the verb.
Examples
I have eaten - he comido
You have loved - She has kissed. etc,
Ha(s) amado - (ella) ha besado
Using the past tense for a future action can also happen in English.
Example: The modal verb Would is in the past tense.
"Would you be so kind as to drive me to the airport next Thursday? "

Comentarios
Add Comment