What is the gender of the noun "alma"?

Question

I asked this question in another thread because I wanted the author to see the question, but it was off-topic from his discussion so I'm going to post it as a separate question here.

Is it un alma or una alma?

Our dictionary lists alma as both a feminine and masculine noun according to context. The RAE, dictionary, however, lista alma as a feminine word in all 15 of its definitions. I am wondering if our dictionary is incorrect, because someone failed to notice that alma is an "el agua" type word. That is, that even though it is a feminine word it would be el alma to avoid the two stressed "a's" together.

If alma (notice that it ends in ma, so it may also be one of those words with Greek origins that are masculine) is, indeed, feminine, then would it not be una alma? Since there are not two stressed "a's" together in [u na] alma the "el agua" construction does not apply.

Can anyone verify the gender of alma? Is it feminine, masculine or both? Don't google discussions on the noun's gender... I already tried), because there are a lot of just plain "stupid" answers in the threads. [tying the gender of the noun to the sex of its owner] If that were so, then it would be listed as a "both masculine and feminine noun" in the dictionary. [like el/la artista]

I googled and you see un alma used just as much as una alma.

Is it, "Dos hermanos, una alma"???

My hard cover dictionary list it as a feminine noun like the RAE. Can anyone confirm that?

• I'm not sure but I don't think this word has a Greek root. We have a similar one meaning jump and not soul. - ianta Sep 20, 2011
• One of my books.. I forget which one it was.. said it was feminine like agua. - rabbitwho Sep 20, 2011

Answer 1

Made me think all right but I found it:

Al comenzar por /a/ tónica, exige el uso de la forma el del artículo si entre ambos elementos no se interpone otra palabra (→ el, 2.1), pero los adjetivos deben ir en forma femenina: «Ascendíamos escalón tras escalón con el alma encogida» (FdzCubas Altillos [Esp. 1983]).

So far that was clear:

En cuanto al indefinido, aunque no se considera incorrecto el uso de la forma plena una, hoy es mayoritario y preferible el uso de la forma apocopada un (→ uno, 1): «Violeta no es un alma sencilla» (Serrano Vida [Chile 1995]). El resto de los adjetivos determinativos debe ir en femenino: esta alma, toda el alma, etc.

I thought the form una alma was actually incorrect, however as you can see this is technically not the case, but you would get weird looks if you said , "una alma", which means nothing at all, as you also get weird looks when you use the correct "esta alma" (more often with esta agua, people even correct you oye, es este agua...what can I say... )

• I am still awaiting the discovery of a Spanish grammar rule that does not have exceptions. Thank you for the explanation and the research. - qfreed Sep 20, 2011
• my pleasure mi rey:) - Heidita Sep 20, 2011
• This reminds me of the comment that Mark Twain made about the French. "I just spent the summer in France. Try as we might, we couldn't even make them understand their own language'" :) - Jeremias Sep 20, 2011

Answer 2

Is it un alma or una alma?

Whenever the stress falls on the last a of the word right before alma, this is changed to masculine.

el alma, un alma

but

esta (stress is on e) alma mía, mi atormentada (stress : atomentada) alma

This is pure theory though, quen, you wouldn't believe how many people here say:

este agua

Answer 3

Whenever the stress falls on the last a of the word right before alma, this is changed to masculine.

el alma, un alma

I don't follow your argument, that was the whole point of my question.

In una alma the stress DOES NOT fall on the last "a" of the word right before alma.

The stress on una is on the u; not the last "a" before alma. (grave)

That is surely the explanation for la, but I do not see it with una.

• I'm still confused too. - Nicole-B Sep 20, 2011
• Although it doesn't take much to confuse me on any given day. :) - Nicole-B Sep 20, 2011
• Well, get used to hearing the answer: This case is an exception to the rule. I keep hearing it more and more as I learn more grammar. - qfreed Sep 20, 2011

Answer 4

I don't follow your argument, that was the whole point of my question.

In una alma the stress DOES NOT fall on the last "a" of the word right before alma.

The stress on una is on the u; not the last "a" before alma. (grave)

So it's el alma but una alma?

Damn Gfreed, you are a real trouble maker! I mean this as the best possible way. Can't wait to see how this is answered. And I sure hope the guy doesn't have his tatoo yet!

• Even if he did, I don't think anyone would notice. Like Heidta says when people are used to using "el", they automatically use "un" without thinking about it. - qfreed Sep 20, 2011

Answer 5

I don't think the gender of the noun changes in 'alma, agua, or águila.' They are feminine words, even when used with the article 'el'. ' El' is used instead of 'la' when the feminine word begins with a stressed 'a'. But in the plural there is no need to avoid the plural article 'las'. F.i. Las aguas, las almas, las águilas.

• You are correct. The gender of the word does not change to match the definite article that is being used with it. Your rule is too simple, there is more to it than that. - qfreed Sep 20, 2011
• The intent is to avoid two stressed "a's" being used consecutively. - qfreed Sep 20, 2011
• In esta agua agua begins with a stressed "a" , but "este" agua is not used since the "a" in esta is not stressed. - qfreed Sep 20, 2011
• in la agua you have 2 adjecent, stressed "a's" together. That is why you use el. - qfreed Sep 20, 2011
• That's right. That's why it's una águila, esta agua etc. But seen from a practical point of view the ostensible 'gender change' only occurs when 'la' is replaced bij 'el'. - Castor77 Sep 20, 2011