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1 Vote

Hi smile

Tengo unos preguntas sobre la misma tema.

If I wanna say a sentence that the verb is for a woman (or a girl), should I add "la" to the verb?

In addition, what if it's for a man, should I add "lo"? (like the word "it" in spanish).

Ejemplos:

1) Quiero dejarle - i want to ... for him/her/usted.

2) Quiero verla - I wanna see her.

3) Quiero verlo - I wanna see it/ him.

What I mean is that the first sentence contains verb that for someone, and the second and the third is not for someone. It's hard for me to tell the exact difference, I don't really know how to do it. I hope you understand me.

Y otra cosa mas, how can I say "yours" in plural? (I mean while using "ustedes").

Please answer in English.

Thank you very much guys, I totally appriciate your help smile

  • Posted Sep 17, 2011
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  • If I 'want to' :) - Welcome to the forum Henry, we just try to stick to correct spelling etc as we have learners of English here too :) - Kiwi-Girl Sep 17, 2011 flag

7 Answers

4 Vote

I'll give you some examples without using any grammatical terms.

I want to see her. For this sentence, are you actually seeing "her"? Yes, so you would use "la":

Quiero verla.

I can take him. Are you actually taking "him"? Yes, so you would use "lo":

Puedo llevarlo.

I should buy her a gift. Are you actually buying "her"? I hope not, so you use "le":

Debo comprarle un regalo.

Debo comprarle un regalo para ella. (This is not redundant, but emphatic).

This can also be written in English as:

I should buy a gift for her. Since "gift" is masculine in Spanish, you can also use "lo" for "it":

Debo comprarlo para ella. (I should buy it for her.)

0 Vote

"I should buy her a gift" somehow it is like " I should buy a gift for her" So there is "for" in the sentence and it become "le".

can you show me the grammatical terms or rules?

Because I want to be sure if the appearance of the word "for" requires ¨le¨¨ or it´s all aboult if I actually commit the verb.

Thanks,

0 Vote

Y otra cosa mas, how can I say "yours" in plural? (I mean while using "ustedes").

yours is a pronoun= el suyo o los suyos The antecendent of suyo(s) (singular noun or plural noun) is what determines if it is el suyo or los suyos; not whether the you is singular or plural

Single possessor (usted)

Bob, is this book yours?

Bob, ¿es este libro el suyo?.

Bob, are these books yours?

Bob, ¿son estos libros los suyos?


Plural Possessor (ustedes)

John and Mary, is this yours?

Juan y María, ¿es esto el suyo?

John and Mary, are these yours?

Juan y María, ¿son estos los suyos?

0 Vote

Y otra cosa mas, how can I say "yours" in plural? (I mean while using "ustedes").

There's one detail not mentioned yet which is the 'gender' of the noun. As in Spanish objects (nouns) have a gender.

The house = La casa The book = El libro

So the possessive form varies accordingly:

This house is yours = Esta casa es suya (de ustedes) This book is yours = Este libro es suyo

And in plural: Estas casas son suyas. Estos libros son suyos.

Note that the possessive is always the same for Usted and Ustedes. So 'este libro es suyo' works for 'usted' and 'ustedes'

0 Vote

Gracias, pero tego otra

0 Vote

Because I want to be sure if the appearance of the word "for" requires ¨le¨¨ or it´s all aboult if I actually commit the verb.

"le" is the indirect object pronoun. It answers the question "for" or "to whom".

I gave him the ball. Le di la balón. You are not giving "him", but giving the ball "to him". Because of this, "le" is used.

I bought her a ring. Le compré un anillo. Once again, you did not buy "her", but bought the ring "for her".

I hugged him. Lo abracé. You did hug him. You didn't hug to him, or for him, he did in fact directly receive the verb, and so you use the direct object pronoun "lo".

0 Vote

wow! thanks!!!!!

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