ASK A QUESTION Why is 'se' needed in this sentence
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If I had known the answer, I would have told it to him/her/you (usted), them/you (ustedes)
"se" is the indirect object pronoun used with "decir". "le (him/her/it)" or "les (them/you [ustedes])" becomes "se" when it comes before "lo","la","los" or "las". Looks like the reflexive pronoun, right? It wouldn't be nice to get that confused... ![]()
- Jul 26, 2011
- | Edited by GuitarWarrio Jul 26, 2011
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- Ahhhhhhhh yeah, I see it now. Thank you! - Erin Jul 26, 2011 flag
- No problem, great to see you again, Erin :) - GuitarWarrio Jul 26, 2011 flag
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I've seen it referred to as the "la la" rule.
To keep two object pronouns starting with "L" from being next to each other, you change the first to "se" as mentioned above.
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