ASK A QUESTION Does the subjunctive follow "me da gusto"?
A Spanish speaker corrected me when I said "me da gusto que aun me vayas a hablar." He said that 'vayas' should be 'vas'. I thought it was 'vayas' because the subjunctive would follow an emotional expression. ?
It probably should be in the subjunctive. A quick Google search brought up lots of subjunctive after the phrase "me da gusto que." This makes sense because it's essentially saying "me gusta que," which is followed by subjunctive, unless you're making known a certain fact that's always true.
My high school Spanish teacher always reminded us when learning the subjunctive that even some native speakers don't know how to use it correctly, if at all, and that using it is "icing on the cake" and makes you sound very educated in Spanish.
So, depending on the level of formal education of the person with whom you were speaking, they may or may not know the subjunctive or how to use it correctly.
A Spanish speaker corrected me when I said "me da gusto que aun me vayas a hablar." He said that 'vayas' should be 'vas'.
I agree because hablar is the main verb - not ir. You are simply stating that a future action, indicative - hablar - is the object of the first present indicative action, "dar gusto."
You could say this in present-subjunctive but while keeping in mind what the main verb is, ie: "Me da gusto que aún me hables."
If there were a question of whether she/he would still talk to you or not, then you could say "Me daría gusto que aún me hablaras" or "Me daría gusto que aún me fueras a hablar."
Assuming that the subordinate clause is «that you are even going to talk to me»:
One way to look at it is that you are not informing what is in the subordinate clause.
The listener is already aware of the fact. You are merely expessing your emotional response to it.
Another viewpoint is that the subordinate clause is uncertain since it deals with the future and may never happen.