Why "pedir algo a alguien" instead of "pedir algo de alguien"?

Question

I'm reading an article in El País about abuse victims asking for damages from the Catholic church. They used the phrase pedirán indemnizaciones económicas a la Iglesia católica. I realize la Iglesia católica is the indirect object, so a works, but could you also say pedirán indemnizaciones económicas de la Iglesia católica, or am I just trying to translate from English?

• I've no idea Kevin but it's an excellennt question - patch Sep 12, 2010
• another good website is Proceso.com.mx - lots of current news on the narco situation. - mountaingirl Sep 12, 2010
• Thanks. I'll add that one to my bookmarks. - KevinB Sep 12, 2010

Answer 1

In general a given verb and preposition are associated with each other. The prepositions don´t necessarily make sense, or not the same sense they make in English.

• I was afraid someone was going to use my favorite answer on me: There is no why! That's just the way they say it! - KevinB Sep 12, 2010

Answer 2

The verb "pedir" goes with the preposition "a" and there's not much more to it, so you can think of it as if in spanish we always ask things "to" people (or in this case an institution), not "from" them, it's just one of those cases where things are done in a different way in each language.

• Another vote for "That's just the way they say it". I think you guys are right. - KevinB Sep 12, 2010

Answer 3

You use a because Pedir is to ask someone for something. The thing cannot give it - only a living creature.

"Te pido un favor." Again, you are asking this of someone.

BTW, I´m now using firefox and it´s wonderful. Thanks for the suggestion! Computation is once again civilized!

• Glad you like it! - KevinB Sep 12, 2010

Answer 4

pedirán indemnizaciones económicas a la Iglesia católica. I realize la Iglesia católica is the indirect object....

In the part of the sentence that isn't shown, does there happen to be an anticipatory i.o.p. (le)? I'm trying to figure out if the Catholic Church is personified and treated as a person, whether the anticipatory i.o.p. is used when "things" are the i.o., or whether the statement that an anticipatory i.o.p. is always used when the sentence has an i.o. is accurate. I'm talking about the i.o.p. that grammar articles usually describe as "seemingly redundant".

• Las víctimas de los sacerdotes pederastas belgas, medio millar según un informe revelado esta semana , pedirán indemnizaciones económicas a la Iglesia católica, informa la agencia de noticias Belga. - KevinB Sep 12, 2010
• No iop that I can see. - KevinB Sep 12, 2010

Answer 5

Hi, Kevin - It's interesting that you ask this question; a student and I spent an enire class on this very subject last Monday.

To review: direct objects answer "who" or "what, whereas indirect objects tell "to whom" or "for whom" and - very occasionally when translating to English from Spanish - "from whom".

Simple example: "I ask him for the book". I ask for who or what? the book. From whom do I ask for the book? From him. "Le pido el libro".

Another verb that seems to operate this way is "Comprar". Le compro el coche a mi vecino." "I am buying the car from my neighbor."

So, you are correct - "pedir" requires an indirect object when in English we would use the "from" structure.

• Thanks. I know about indirect objects and that the church is one in this case. I was just curious about pedir a vs. pedir de, and I think the answer is "that's just how they say it." - KevinB Sep 12, 2010