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I recently read on a Spanish grammar site that the subjunctive could be used after 'quizas' to express a greater doubt. Is this true? I was once told not to use the subjunctive in this case.

** They can be followed by the subjunctive or indicative. When the subjunctive is used, there is a greater degree of doubt.

e.g. Quizá se han equivocado. Perhaps they've made a mistake. Quizá lo haga mañana. Perhaps I'll do it tomorrow. (more doubt)

  • Posted Aug 31, 2010
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2 Answers

3 Vote

The rule is true: you can use both moods. With indicative you say what you think or guess, as usual with this mood, whereas with subjunctive you simply express a virtual idea, which does not necessarily express what you think or guess. Look:

Quizá(s) vendrá luego (supposition with future tense)

Quizá(s) vendrá luego, pero no creo que venga (you think but you don't think???? Makes no sense!)

Quizá(s) venga luego, pero no creo que venga (no one is saying there that he may be coming later, there is no such declaration)

By the way, if "quizá(s)" comes after the verb, it is just an post-clarification, so the main sentence demands indicative for a statement:

Vendrá quizá(s) después

Vendrá después, quizá(s)

Venga quizá(s) después (change of meaning: "Please come later, maybe". Now it is a polite request)

  • On this note, which is more commonly used? Quizas, or quizá? Many thanks! - Sheily Aug 31, 2010 flag
  • Lazarus What you sayt makes sense but why Quizá not Quizás , please ???? - FELIZ77 Aug 31, 2010 flag
  • Thanks again! - NikkiRivera Aug 31, 2010 flag
2 Vote

Quizá and quizás are perfectly equivalent, and the choice between them is a matter of personal preference. If you want to know, "quizás" came after "quizá".

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