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I understand that the phrase "Te tengo a ti" means I have you. Is this correct? If I had not had a translation I do not think I would have been able to figure it out grammatically. The pronoun usage has me confused. Is a ti simply used for emphasis? Can anyone please help? Thanks!

  • Posted Jul 17, 2010
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Hello, and welcome to the forum. Yes, I'd translate it as "I have you" or "I've got you". It is redundant (it would be complete without the "a ti" at the end), but redundancy in this sort of situation is not incorrect in Spanish. It is used for emphasis, emphasizing the person who is had.

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Yes, that´s what it means and I believe the "a ti" is added for emphasis, as in

¿A ti te gustan las manzanas? - Do you like apples?

  • Thanks you have helped clear this up for me. - JoeyT Jul 17, 2010 flag
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