ASK A QUESTION why is milk pronounced la leche instead of el leche
7 Answers
Hola overpar102, Welcome to SpanishDict!!
Leche is a feminine noun, therefore it needs the feminine article (la) not the masculine article (el).
Why it is feminine may have something to do with female animals (cows, nannies, etc. ) providing milk rather than their male counterparts (bulls, billies, etc.) Or the RAE flipped a coin. ![]()
Feminine words can end in e. Masculine words can end in e, therefore you need to know the article (el or la) that goes with a particular word. Just to confuse, some words ending in "a" are masculine and have el instead of la e.g. el agua (water) Why??........don't know sorry.
Porque sí! Because it is! There´s no real reason, you just have to learn it. There are a few exceptions like this (la calle, for example) There is a reason why agua is preceeded by el, however. It´s not a masculine noun, but if a feminine noun starts with "a", you use "el" in the singular because otherwise it would be "la agua" which means there would be two "a"s together. We know it´s not masculine because in the plural it´s "las aguas" and not "los aguas."
Maybe it's because el leche would have two ls next to each other??? I don't know if it's los leches or las leches in the plural, but that would answer the question.
Here we go again with the uncountable nouns. Q, I'm not arguing against your statement but thought I would bring up a past thread on this.
- Who ever said that we speak using correct grammar? I understand it when someone says "give me a beer", but that is only an abbreviated context that we have learned to use for bottle, glass, mug, etc. of beer. (it's implied). That does not prevent beer - qfreed May 26, 2010 flag
- from being an uncountable noun. - qfreed May 26, 2010 flag
- prescriptive/descritive... which is correct? How the rules state that something should be stated or how it is understood according to common usage? Arguments for both viewpoints. - qfreed May 26, 2010 flag

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