in "No la he visto a ella... " (which is I haven't seen her for two years) Why do you use the (la) here?

Question

in "No la he visto a ella... " (which is... I haven't seen her for two years.) Why do you use the (la) here? and then also you use (a) before the word ( ella). Are the not both used as female words?

Answer 1

You cannot say "No la he visto a ella" because la is not indirect object. indirect objects are only le and se, and only used se if the following pronoun starts with "l". instead of saying "lela" you say "sela".

the sentence should be "No le he visto a ella". first comes complemento indirecto and then complimento directo. indirectos are only "le/se" where the director ones are "lo/la/le".

and when you start with "no le he visto", it could be "he, she, usted", to clearify the object, you add "a ella" "a él" or "a usted".

Answer 2

No. La indicates female. The a (to) indicates that the verb applies to her.

If it were a male:

I haven't seen him in two years: No le he visto a el in dos años.

Answer 3

I don't think you need the "a ella" there to make sense. I'll just say "no la he visto en dos años".

I'm guessing you are answering a question similar to "¿Has visto a .......... últimamente?

Answer 4

That's true, you don't need the a ella necessarily. (I mistakenly thought the original poster added this statement. sorry)