not understand the meaning ..[ Esa finca se la ha dejado su mujer]

Question

Hello everyone,

[ Esa finca se la ha dejado su mujer]

Does it mean: The property has been left to his wife . ? Am I correct or wrong ?

Please correct me , thanks very much .

damaz :D

Answer 1

"la" refers to the finca (property or even plantation) and the woman is leaving it to someone else, perhaps in the context it mentions to whom. "Se" acts like "le" in this case, and means that it is going to someone else. If there was an "A" before "su mujer" then it would mean that it is going to the woman, and that someone else was giving it to her, but since there is no "A" then it means that the woman is subject, therefore she is leaving it to someone else.

Answer 2

[ Esa finca se la ha dejado su mujer]

It is the same as saying

Su mujer le ha dejado a él (su marido) una finca.

His wife has left him (her husband) a property / plantation.

Other way to say the same thing would be:

Esa finca la ha heredado de su mujer. (It is supposed that the property was inherited (by him) from his wife)

Answer 3

To translate what you want to say it should look like this:

La propiedad se le ha dejado a su esposa/mujer.

Answer 4

many thanks to Moiz and Daniel.

I found this sentence in my textbook : [ Esa finca se la ha dejado su mujer] and I want to know its meaning ...

I am a bit confused ... [la] refers to [esa finca] or [su mujer] ? hope you would explain it to me , thanks very much .

• "la" refers to "la finca" - Mokay Dec 28, 2009

Answer 5

To my mind that [la] is odd here,without it the sentence is more correct.

• "la" is needed in there. - Mokay Dec 28, 2009

Answer 6

Su mujer le ha dejado esa finca

Answer 7

many thanks to everyone. Now i understand the meaning of the sentence again. (because i am not very familiar with the use of passive voice ...) not i am getting clear, thanks all. : )