Either way.

There is a subjective mood only if it follows the three rules for the subjunctive. The subjunctive sentence must express an emotion, a wish, or a desire; it must contain a relative pronoun (que, como, or quien); it must contain an independent and a dependent clause; and it must contain two subjects and two verbs (in the subjective and indicative moods).

So you could say (in Spanish), "No obstante, quiero un hombre quien sea rico," ("nevertheless, I want a man who is rich"), which follows all the rules for a subjunctive sentence. Or you could follow "no obstante" with an indicative expression, such as "No obstante, me niego a hacer mi tarea" ("nevertheless, I refuse to do my homework").

Give me a slightly longer sentence and I might be able to help you more, but in general the subjunctive indicates uncertainty. With "no obstante" I would most likely use the indicative because to my way of the thinking "no obstante" does not introduce any element of doubt, uncertainty, or even emotion. Person X does this regardless of situation Y.

Eddy, as far as I know in this case the subjunctive is used because "a man" is an unknown subject (not "a particular" man but "any" man - who/quien). The change in subject rule would apply if you wanted someone else to do something, eg "I want you to do your homework" = "quiero que hagas tus deberes", wheras "I want to do my homework" (same subjects) uses the indicative "quiero que hago mis deberes" or just the infinitive "quiero hacer mis deberes". Thanks everyone for the help on the "no obstante" question - I just wasn't sure.

I think the confusion here is in the belief that the word "nevertheless" changes the mood of a statement.