ASK A QUESTION Use of "se nos" as "our"?
My workbook has the following sentence:
Se nos ha roto el arado.
It shows the translation as being:
Our plow has broken.
I don't understand the use of "se nos." Does the word se go with ha roto, as in our plow has broken itself? If so, then why don't they say nuestro arado? Or does se nos together mean something? How does nos mean our?
4 Answers
There may be several previous threads on this topic.
[previous link on se rompío el radio][1]
I'd translate it this way: The (our) plow has broken (itself) to us. I know it looks weird in English, but translated this way to my language (Polish) sounds normal. And "romperse" is a reflexive verb and in English it means "to break itself down". To an English native speaker it may be difficult at the beginning to catch up on all those reflexive verbs, as in English "oneself" is mainly used for indicating the agent or giving emphasis.
And maybe you'll want to check the conjugarion of "romperse" link text
Se nos rompe also makes the situation more of an accident than intentional. It kind of translates to "it broke on us" rather than "hemos roto el arado," " we broke our plow. You would also find formations like this in frases such as "se nos olvidó el arado," We forgot the plow ( but not on purpose) or "se me quemó," I burned myself ( again, non intentionally)
I hope this added to the clarification!
You use 'se ' here to show the action happened TO you rather than YOU breaking it
in the sentence 'se me cayó la falda' - the skirt fell off you (without you doing anything)
se me rompió implies you weren't involved in the breaking of it - it just broke
The use of se is complex in Spanish - don't always thinks it's reflexive!!

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