Imperativo De Los Verbos Reflexivos | SpanishDict Answers
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Por favor puede alguien darme un ejemplo de la forma imperativo para los verbos reflexivos por cada persona? Grazias

  • Por favor, ¿puede alguien darme un ejemplo de la forma **imperativa** **de** los verbos reflexivos **para** cada persona? **Gracias.** - hhmdirocco Aug 8, 2009 flag

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qfreed said:

irse

informal: (3rd person indicative and 2nd person subj endings)

(tú) vete/ no te vayas ( vosotros) idos/ no os vayáis

formal: (3rd person subj. endings)

(Vd). váyase/ no se vaya ( Vds.) váyanse / no se vayan

You forgot first person plural:

(Nosotros) Vámonos / No nos vayamos

.

qfreed said:

The imperative mood only has one person (2nd), but informal and formal forms which use 2nd person and 3rd person endings.

That is not true. The imperative mood has first, second, and third persons. The first person imperative is in the plural only, and I have given an example above.

The imperative in the third person is in the form of indirect commands, or strong desires. Examples:

¡Viva el rey! (Long live the king!)

¡Que pase el tren! (Let the train pass!)

¡(Que) Dios te bendiga! ([May] God bless you!)

.

[Some grammar articles that I have read consider this third person imperative/indirect command to be the subjunctive mood, but from my study of other languages, I am of the opinion that verbs should be identified by their function rather than their form. For example, the negative version of the imperative mood (negative commands)--the function--takes the subjunctive form (e.g., No te vayas). But that doesn't mean it is no longer the imperative mood. Another example that you have already alluded to (although in a confusing manner, especially for the level of this question): the second person familiar (tú form) imperative (mode/function) in the affirmative takes the form of the third person singular (él form), present indicative active in most verbs (although pronominal verbs retain the second person pronoun). Does that then make the command "¡Come!", third person? No, its function is still second person. Does that then make it present indicative active? No, its mode/function is still imperative, the form it takes is identical to the present indicative active, third person singular. That being said, if someone with more grammatical expertise than I says that indirect commands in Spanish are subjunctive mood and not imperative, I would not argue with them. I think part of the argument hinges on the intention of the speaker, a strong desire or an indirect command.]

.

So, to answer the original question ... el verbo pronominal irse se conjuga en el modo imperativo como así:

(Yo) ******** ---------------------------- (Nosotros) Vámonos / No nos vayamos

(Tú) Vete / No te vayas ------------ (Vosotros) Idos / No os vayáis

(Él/Ud.) Váyase / No se vaya --- (Ellos/Uds.) Váyanse / No se vayan

.

El verbo reflexivo lavarse se conjuga en el modo imperativo como así:

(Yo) ******** -------------------------- (Nosotros) Lavémonos / No nos lavemos

(Tú) Lávate / No te laves -------- (Vosotros) Lavaos / No os lavéis

(Él/Ud.) Lávese / No se lave --- (Ellos/Uds.) Lávense / No se laven

  • No argument from me, I just haven't seen indirect commands usually listed with the imperative mood, but I suppose they are after all "commands". - 0074b507 Aug 9, 2009 flag
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irse

informal: (3rd person indicative and 2nd person subj endings)

(tú) vete/ no te vayas ( vosotros) idos/ no os vayáis

formal: (3rd person subj. endings)

(Vd). váyase/ no se vaya ( Vds.) váyanse / no se vayan

The imperative mood only has one person (2nd), but informal and formal forms which use 2nd person and 3rd person endings.

  • 2nd person in Engish is You. In Spanish you is expressed informally (tú/vosotros) or formally (Vd., Vds.) - 0074b507 Aug 8, 2009 flag
  • I think we should also note that technically "irse" is a pronominal verb, not reflexive. - Nick-Cortina Aug 8, 2009 flag
  • When conjugation tables are displayed Vd. Vds. are listed with the 3 person subj. pronouns endings because the 2nd. person formal uses 3rd person endings. So, even though for 3rd person singular person you see he/she/it/you - 0074b507 Aug 8, 2009 flag
  • that use that ending the you is still 2nd personal, formal - 0074b507 Aug 8, 2009 flag
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tnx a lot! wink

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Sorry, Nick. Of course, you are right. I forgot that the original post said reflexive. Same (reflexive) pronouns in the imperative mood, however. (te, os, se)

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The traditional position for English would be that "imperative" applies only to commands (directed at the 2nd sing/plu person). for any other person (especially the 1st person plural) the term "hortatory subjunctive" is/was used (a borrowing from the study of Latin grammar). Presumably it was thought that giving a "command" to oneself (or a group that included oneself) did not make much sense but one could "exhort" a group (even if it included oneself) to do something.

Phrases such as "long live the king" (¡viva el rey!) are normally taken to be the usual expressions of wishes/desires (couched in the subjunctive) and as requiring no special explanation.

  • Thanks for that info, samdie. I was wondering if anyone had more info/input about whether these things are considered imperative mode in Spanish. I'm sure that first person plural is, because it is unlike any other form. - hhmdirocco Aug 8, 2009 flag
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Grammarians differentiate between morphological and syntactic imperative.

(2nd person singular) ¡Calla! / ¡Calle! (2nd person plural) ¡Callad! / ¡Callen!

Using pronominal verbs:

(2nd person singular) ¡Cállate! / ¡Callese! (2nd person plural) ¡Callaos! / ¡Callense!

Notice that the "-d" in the plural "you" is dropped, except in "idos", a form that virtually no one uses, but the RAE insists on keeping.

  • Thanks, Lazarus, for that info. I'm sure your "Callese/Callense" are a typos for "Cállese/Cállense." - hhmdirocco Aug 8, 2009 flag
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lazarus1907 said:

Grammarians differentiate between morphological and syntactic imperative.

So are you saying that the syntactic imperative is 2nd person only? And that the rest are morphological imperative?

What is your position on the third person, "indirect commands"? Are they morphological imperative or just present subjunctive?

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